Prophecy in Matthew

%% an in-depth look at prophecy in Matthew %%

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Matt 1:22-23

Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: See, the virgin will become pregnant and give birth to a son, and they will name him Immanuel, which is translated "God is with us"

Cross-Ref: Is. 7:14

(10) Then the Lord spoke again to Ahaz: (11) "Ask for a sign from the Lord your God – it can be as deep as Sheol or as high as heaven." (12) But Ahaz replied, "I will not ask. I will not test the Lord." (13) Isaiah said, "Listen, house of David~ Is it not enough for you to try the patience of men? Will you also try the patience of my God? (14) Therefore, the Lord himself will give you a sign: See, the virgin will conceive, have a son, and name him Immanuel. (15) By the time he learns to reject what is bad and choose what is good, he will be eating curds and honey. (16) For before the boy knows to reject what is bad and choose what is good, the land of the two kings you dread will be abandoned. (17) The Lord will bring on you, your people, and your father's house such a time as has never been since Ephraim separated from Judah

Notes

The context of the prophecy seems is when Ahaz is being buffetted by the king of Assyria and everything looks hopeless. Isaiah tells him that his enemies will be destroyed, and offers to give him a sign. When Ahaz declines the sign, God offers one anyway. If this were meant to refer to Jesus, then how could it be a sign to Ahaz? And how does the sentence after v.14 fit in, where it talks about him rejecting evil and choosing good, and how the kings will have fallen by the time he gets that old?

Qualms

What does virgin mean in these two contexts? Does it mean different things in different contexts? Is it actually a real virgin in both contexts, or only in Matthew?

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Matt 2:4-6

(4) So he assembled all the chief priests and scribes of the people and asked them where the Christ would be born. (5) "In Bethlehem of Judea," they told him, "because this is what was written by the prophet: (6) "And you, Bethlehem, in the land of Judah, are by no means least among the rulers of Judah: Because out of you will come a ruler who will shepherd my people Israel."

Cross-Ref: Mic. 5:2, 4

(1) Now, daughter who is under attack, you slash yourself in grief; a siege is set against us! They are striking the judge of Israel on the cheek with a rod. (2) Bethlehem Ephrathah, you are small among the clans of Judah; one will come from you to be ruler over Israel for me. His origin is from antiquity, from ancient times. (3) Therefore, Israel will be abandoned until the time when she who is in labor has given birth; then the rest of the ruler's brothers will return ot the people of Israel. (4) He will stand and shepherd them in the strength of the Lord, in the majestic name of the Lord his God.

Notes

The context of this section seems to be prophetic. Unlike the first "prophecy", this one uses the future tense extensively. Micah seems to be providing hope for a conquered Israel, hope that better times would come again; that God would bring justice back to the world.

Qualms

What does the rest of the ruler's brothers mean in verse 3? The "ruler" is presumably Jesus, but who are his brothers? The people of Israel? No, because the brothers are said to be returning to the people.

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Matt 2:15

(13) After they were gone, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream, saying, "Get up!" Take the child and his mother, flee to Egypt, and stay there until I tell you. For Herod is about to search for the child to kill him." (14) So he got up, took the child and his mother during the night, and escaped to Egypt. (15) He stayed there until Herod's death, so that what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet might be fulfilled: Out of Egypt I called my Son.

Cross-Ref: Hosea 11:1

(1) When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son. (2) Israel called to the Egyptians even as Israel was leaving them. They kept sacrificing to the Balls adn burning offerings to idols.

Notes

Hosea speaks of Israel as a "child," and then refers to him as "my son." This is not unusual for God. For instance, in Exodus 4:22, the Lord refers to Israel as "my son, even my firstborn" when He was talking to Moses. Thus, I see no reason to interpret the Hosea passage as referring to anything but Israel.

Qualms

Perhaps I should be more careful about this, but I don't see any missing pieces to this interpretation. It seems pretty straightforward.